I understand everything you are saying from scholarly and etymological standpoint, and I can even agree; but the *legal* standpoint is the one that concerns me here, because there needs to be *some* kind of legal definition, otherwise we are in a bit of a problem. If we take the position that government should be entirely separate from religion and make no contributions to any of them, then your definition (or lack thereof) means that the government cannot fund *any* group at all (whether based on culture, interest, sport, etc), because they could theoretically be considered a religion. Conversely, if the government should sponsor all religious groups equally, then your definition would require that the government hand out funds to any wacko or group of wackos who ask for them because you can't tell them (the applicants for funds, that is) that what they practise is not a religion.